Paul_1957 Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 [snapbackDuring the Peninsular War soldiers of the British Army qualified for payments of Prize Money. There were several payments made covering set periods of time. For example a payment was made covering the period 1 Jan 1814 - March 1814. My query is this. Let's assume that you know for definate that a soldier was entitled to and received a share of the prize money for 1 Jan 1814 - March 1814. Can you infer from that fact that the same soldier would have served in Spain/France for at least one day in that corresponding period? Another way of looking at my query is: did a soldier have to physically serve in the theatre of ops during the period covered by the prize money payment before he was entitled to get a share of the money? If anyone can help it would be much appreciated. Paul [/snapback
Paul_1957 Posted January 26, 2010 Author Posted January 26, 2010 Just an amendment to my previous post. The prize money period actually covered 1 Jan - 10 Apr 14. That'll teach me to do it from memory! Doesn't alter the gist of my query though. Paul
peter monahan Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 Just an amendment to my previous post. The prize money period actually covered 1 Jan - 10 Apr 14. That'll teach me to do it from memory! Doesn't alter the gist of my query though. Paul I've been doing a very little research in regards prize money for British [Newfoundlander] officer who helped capture two American schooners in Lake huron [Canada] in 1814. Prize monies had to be decided on by a Prize Court - usually run by/from the Admiralty - after the loot/captured ships were sold, then portioned out to the recipients. My guy got L45 in 1819 but in 1825 was in London, still chasing the prize agent for the balance. The agent, BTW, had apparently left for France and was not expceted to return. All that is an aide but, given the time and distances involved the only way, in my view, for the system to have worked was to take the muster rolls for the relevant period and use those as the awards list. Remember that prize amounts were dependant on rank, so it would get hopelessly convoluted if one used the rolls from any later period, especially as dead, desrted and time-expired soldiers would not appear on the latter. Not to say that there weren't people on a regiments who weren't there, but I think that would have been rare. Keep if mind that it was in the interest of every quailifed applicant and the prize agents to exclude those not qualified, as the money was paid in 'shares': not a set sum but some measureable fraction of the total. In short [Too late!] - yes, a soldier would have had to be on the ground for at least part of the period to get any money. Keep in mind too how anal War Office clerks were about giving out ANY money! Not much chance of someone getting a free ride. My tuppence plus, and welcome to it! Peter
Paul_1957 Posted January 27, 2010 Author Posted January 27, 2010 Peter, Thanks for your reply. It makes sense that the soldier would have to be present for some portion of the period covered by the payment. As you say, the War Office would not pay out anything unless they had to. Paul
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